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(6/12/02 4:06 am)
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Arminian Arguement using 1Timothy 4:10
One argument that the Arminian's like to bring up is in Timothy 4:10. We can observe this verse by reading the following:
1Ti 4:10 For therefore we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, specially of those that believe
We can examine this verse and dissect it by understanding the Greek and to find out if God is really the Savior of all men or if He is the Savior of all men of whom He had elected.
It is also very important to concede how the bible uses certain words consistently throughout the bible. Without this method one could make up his own rules, ideas and interpretation of how he visualizes each word. A person then can give it his or her own meaning. As we know that saved and salvation does not always mean eternal when it is used.
Savior of all men (swthr pantwn anqrwpwn). We can see that the same wording applying and cross-referencing the same word swthr, we will be able to tell if the word is used properly when we make an interpretation of the meaning.
Lets look at the following verse:
1Ti 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Savior, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;
We can see that God is applied here. God it is said is our Savior. This is using the
verse and word correctly when applied to eternal life for those who believe in Christ as the
Resurrection and Redeemer.
Keeping this word in the right context it is easy to see how it is used.
We can observe that in 1 Tim. 4:10 that it says "especially for them that believe."
Then in the above verse it says the same thing for those who have Christ as their hope.
Paul emphasis the word "all" in the verse for those who are "especially" the ones in Christ.
So do we see this word as being used to mean the Savior for all men as the same as those who have hope in Christ? This cannot be done. We see that Paul meant that this verse coincides with the other verses to mean that God saved us from world judgment and keeps the world alive in a providential way. His grace through Christ has kept us from being destroyed by an early judgment against men.
Lets look at another verse to conjoin the thought on this matter:
1Ti 6:13 I give thee charge in the sight of God, who quickeneth all things, and before Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed a good confession;
Act 17:28 For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we are also his offspring.
RWP states this:
For in him (en autw gar). Proof of God's nearness, not stoic pantheism, but real immanence in God as God dwells in us. The three verbs (zwmen, kinoumeqa, esmen) form an ascending scale and reach a climax in God (life, movement, existence). Kinoumeqa is either direct middle present indicative (we move ourselves) or passive (we are moved).
So now we can see that God gives life to all. God is the Savior of all men because He is the one who gave grace to all the world that we would live until his purposes are finished through Jesus Christ.
2Pe 3:4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.
This promise must be fulfilled and the only way to keep it going is to give mankind life by his mercy and through Jesus Christ.
Heb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
Heb 1:3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
Notice how he upholds all things by the word of his power? It does not say by the power of his word.
God then is the Savior unto all men but as Paul said and emphasized the word, "especially" for those who are in Christ.
We can see that Paul says God our Savior for all men and then says especially for those who are in Christ. We do have two different thoughts here and we can see by the scriptures how it was used consistently throughout the bible.
We cannot use this scripture to say that Jesus is the Savior for all men or that God is the Savior of all men when applying it to eternal salvation. If Jesus was the Savior for all men then all are saved. If we use Universalism and conjoin it with this verse then all should be saved. Are all saved? NO! Christ is not a Savior to any one person until the blood is applied unto them.
This particular scripture is not talking about a potential salvation for all men. We cannot infer what is not there. It does not say potential Savior. Since it did not say potential Savior for all men then this is why Paul said "especially" for those who have hope in Christ. He was wanting to show us that God is a Savior for those who are in Christ and those who are not in Christ.
That God is a Savior for those who are of this world in the temporary life and for those who are in Christ. Those born again lost souls have both the benifit of this life and eternal life
He emphasized that Eternal Salvation only belongs to those who are in Him and for those who are in Him have the hope of Him being their Savior.
God saved the world from immediate destruction because of "the Promise” of the Savior and the world benefited from having another world judgment as He did with Noah.
Psa 17:7 Shew thy marvellous lovingkindness, O thou that savest by thy right hand them which put their trust in thee from those that rise up against them.
JaRay
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